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I have the tendency to equate "mine" as something like "hers" and "his". But I am not sure if this is correct. I know I could say:

This pencil belongs to his.

But which of the following is correct if I say this:

This pencil belongs to me.


This pencil belongs to mine?

Which is correct? Should I use "me" or use "mine"?

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You’ve picked a poor sentence to illustrate the difference in sense between using a possessive pronoun for the object of a preposition, and using one in the objective case as the object of a preposition. Compare “for us” vs “for ours”, or “with me” vs “with mine”, or “in them” vs “in theirs”. It may clearer with a noun instead of a pronoun, so “for/with/in Bill” vs “for/with/in Bill’s”. You need to learn about case distinctions in substantives, and in particular, the genitive vs non-genitive difference. – tchrist May 22 '12 at 6:14
up vote 8 down vote accepted

The following are correct.

This pencil belongs to him. / This pencil belongs to me.

This pencil is his. / This pencil is mine.

This is his pencil. / This is my pencil.

The following are wrong.

*This pencil belongs to his. / *This pencil belongs to my.

*This pencil belongs to his. / *This pencil belongs to mine.

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Give people food and they will be full for a day, teach people to earn their food and they wont be hungry anymore. Put it simple everyone can point out which one is correct here, they are different type of pronounce so give more information in your answer if you want my +1. I am not as easy like your friends. – speedyGonzales May 22 '12 at 8:11
ha ha good point :D Anyway you know what I have meant. – speedyGonzales May 22 '12 at 8:34

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