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What is the difference between "After downloaded" and "After downloading"? Are they both grammatical?

  1. After downloaded, I start running this program.

  2. After downloading, I start running this program.

Is it also correct to say "after to download"?

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closed as general reference by Clark Kent, Mahnax, tchrist, RegDwigнt May 13 '12 at 10:44

This question is too basic; it can be definitively and permanently answered by a single link to a standard internet reference source designed specifically to find that type of information.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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"After downloaded" and "after to download" are ungrammatical. As any native speaker or any good grammar book will tell you. After is a preposition, as any dictionary will tell you. It thus can precede a gerund, which functions as a noun, but not a full infinitive or a simple-past form. This question is too basic for this site. –  RegDwigнt May 13 '12 at 10:44
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2 Answers

You can say:

  1. After it's downloaded, I will start running the Program.
  2. After downloading (the file), I will run the program.
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so "After downloaded" is totally ungrammatical, we will not use speaking something like this? –  Jammy C.c May 13 '12 at 7:30
    
@JammyC.c Yes, it is totally wrong. –  user221287 May 13 '12 at 14:19
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In addition to what myselfpoddar has said, the first sentence can also be expressed as "After having downloaded (the file).

The last option (after to download) is totally ungrammatical because you cannot use the infinitive after a preposition.

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so "After downloaded" is totally ungrammatical, we will not use speaking something like this? what is the difference between "After having downloaded" and "After downloading" –  Jammy C.c May 13 '12 at 7:31
    
@JammyC.c As far as I know, you can find the first in written texts but you rarely use it in speaking; however, the meaning of the two expressions is equivalent. –  Paola May 13 '12 at 8:13
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