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Is there any differece between 'the English King' and 'the England's King'? Somehow I feel they are different...

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closed as not a real question by Matt E. Эллен, Mehper C. Palavuzlar, FumbleFingers, Mahnax, simchona Apr 25 '12 at 17:59

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, visit the help center.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

the England's King just doesn't make sense. – Matt E. Эллен Apr 25 '12 at 9:39

"The England's King" is incorrect - names of countries are (with a few exceptions) not preceded by the definite article.

Assuming you mean simply "England's king", the meaning is in most cases the same as "the English king" (or indeed, "the king of England").

There may however be some differences (my historical knowledge is somewhat lacking). For example, George III was not English by birth, so could not accurately be termed "English king." And there may have been some British colonies that had an English king, where it would be irrelevant whether he was also the king of England (or indeed, of Great Britain or The United Kingdom, but then we're getting into another topic).

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The first might describe his ethnicity, the second (without ‘the’) his political position, but the true meaning of each would only be clear from the context.

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The ony time I've encountered 'the English King' was in Jacobite documents, since George was de facto King in London, whereas Bonnie Prince Charlie, though he should be on the throne, was King only in Scottish hearts (or something like that). – TimLymington Apr 25 '12 at 12:08
@TimLymington: I'm sure that's right, but I was trying to answer the generic question rather than the specific one. – Barrie England Apr 25 '12 at 12:30
wouldn't "the English King" also mean he's English speaking? – Terry Apr 25 '12 at 12:46
@djerry: No. 'English' alone as an adjective doesn't mean English-speaking. In any case, George I came to the throne probably unable to speak English, although he could arguably be referred to as 'the English King'. And of course the Norman kings of England didn't speak English. – Barrie England Apr 25 '12 at 12:50

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