Is there any difference between “The Lord is my shepherd” and “The God is my shepherd”?
Are Lord and God interchangeable?
I think "Lord" is often taken as meaning the incarnation of Yahweh in the form of Jesus, rather than as an intangible being; it was usually translated this way in the King James Bible.
The bible was written/compiled by different sources at different times. These sources use different words/names for the Christian god, which are translated into English variously as God and the Lord among others. (See, for example, here.)
In the English translations, typically God, with a capital g is taken to be name of the Christian god, and thus a proper noun. Proper nouns do not generally allow articles like the. In contrast, Lord is a title, not a name but a common noun. It is usually used with an article but can also be used without as a vocative, similar to how children use teacher in sentences like teacher, can you help me.
Consequently, The God is my shepherd would not be standard English. God is my shepherd and the god is my shepherd are both grammatical though. Whether they would be used by English-speaking Christians is another issue.
It does change the meaning to swap them around. In the KJV OT:
Also, in terms of articles:
Background of the Ineffable Name
The Jewish section of the Bible (due to religious affinity, I cannot call it "old testament" - because for us it is the new and current testament) has origins in Hebrew and a little Aramaic.
There are many places in the Jewish section of the Bible where the ineffable name of the Almighty is written. It is transliterated in Latin characters as "YHWH".
It is mistakenly verbalized by Christians as "Yahweh". Christians accuse Jews of having "forgotten" how to pronounce the Name. However, many of us believe that we have not "forgotten" how to pronounce the Name, because any attempts to pronounce the Name can only be done by the way we live our lives.
To attempt to pronounce the Name as "Yahweh" or any other verbal form is a pejorative (http://www.thefreedictionary.com/pejorative). To attempt to verbally pronounce the Name is to reduce the significance and the infinite spectrum of the Name to two dimensional form. Being unable to tell the whole story, to tell part of a story is extremely disrespectful and dishonest. That would violate the commandment against taking the Name of the LORD in vain.
How is the ineffable Name written and verbally pronounced then?
The ineffable Name and many other names of the Almighty has to be written in alternative representation. In Hebrew we "verbally represent" the ineffable Name as "Adonai" (אדני), which means "Master" or in older English "Lord". In computer-programming speak, we would call this an "escape sequence" to represent non-printable characters. One has to be clear that it is not a replacement, but a representation, a reference to allow us to invoke the entity represented by the "escape sequence".
However, Bible translators needed a way to differentiate between instances where "Adonai" is the actual word to be translated versus translating the ineffable Name. Therefore, Bible translators instituted the tradition where
You might also notice, for various reasons, that some of us would even write "G-d" or "G*d" as everyday reference to the Almighty.
In the Hebrew origins of the Jewish section of the Bible, G-d is also a word in Hebrew. Which is not the same as "master"/"lord"/"adonai".
Language-wise, you also would not say,
because "G-d" besides being a descriptive noun, is also a proper name. It would be like saying,
Therefore, the English Bible prints the 2nd line of the 23rd psalm as
The literal translation of 23rd Psalm
What do you mean by “is there any difference?”?
As others have noted, “Lord” is a title of respect; “God” is a description, like calling someone a “plumber” (no intent to be disrepectful with that analogy); and “YHWH” or “Yahweh” or “Jehovah” – all attempts to represent the same Hebrew word in English – is God’s proper name. (The Judeo-Christian god’s proper name, if you prefer.) (As others note, “LORD” in all caps is often used by those who, for various reasons, think it is inappropriate to write or say God’s proper name.)
So it’s like the difference between referring to the queen of England as “Your/Her Majesty”, “the queen”, and “Elizabeth”. Do they all refer to the same person? Yes. Are they the same word? Obviously not. Do they mean the same thing? Well ... in what sense?
If you’re quoting a Bible verse, I think it would simply be wrong to swap such words around. It would be like quoting Lincoln’s Gettysburg address as “87 years ago our ancestors ...” The meaning might be the same, but it wouldn’t be an accurate quote.
If you’re just speaking generally, if you said, “Psalm 23 says that God is our shepherd ...”, I don’t think that would be inaccurate.
Whether the Bible intentionally uses different words to convey subtle differences in meaning or some such is a much bigger subject. I’d be cautious about second-guessing the choices of Moses, Isaiah, Paul, etc for how to refer to God, never mind the choices of God himself. (And I’m not going to get into debating the Documentary Hypothesis here.)
Thank you for your interest in this question.
Because it has attracted low-quality answers, posting an answer now requires 10 reputation on this site.
Would you like to answer one of these unanswered questions instead?