Tell me more ×
English Language & Usage Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

There are two common pronunciations of "either": British /ˈaɪðər/ and American /ˈiːðər/. If Americans are more or less consistent in this regard, then the Brits seem to be freely using both. In fact, from what I can tell, "either this or that" is more often in the first form, whereas "me either" is in the second. But I may be wrong. Is there any kind of an informal rule in the modern British English with regard to this?

share|improve this question
8  
I think you are mistaken in thinking this is a difference between British and American English. – Eric Dec 2 '10 at 10:17
4  
Possible duplicate of “Why are there two pronunciations for 'either'?” – RegDwighт Dec 2 '10 at 10:45
1  
"Me either" is uncommon in British English; "me neither" is the more usual form. – Steve Melnikoff Dec 2 '10 at 11:33
1  
Count me among the Americans who uses either pronunciation, depending on the context. – res Dec 2 '10 at 14:17
1  
This is a definite a duplicate, please vote to close. – Noldorin Dec 2 '10 at 20:14
show 6 more comments

7 Answers

up vote 6 down vote accepted

Usage of /i:/ ("EE-THUR") and /ai/ ("EYE-THUR") in Great Britain and in Canada seems to be mixed. In the United States, the predominant usage has always been /i:/. However, there's also a long history of /ai/ occurring among a few Americans, including Benjamin Franklin and James Fenimore Cooper in earlier times, and Franklin Roosevelt, Ronald Reagan and Barrack Obama more recently. For many years, /ai/ was associated in the United States with British usage and, by extension, with certain elites who tried to imitate British usage. It seems to have become more widespread in recent decades, however. While some Americans have adopted /ai/, perhaps because they feel that it sounds sophisticated, other Americans regard it as pretentious.

Spelling, by the way, has nothing to do with the difference. In English, the spelling ei usually represents the "long a" pronunciation ([ei]), as in eight, feign, or rein. In such words, it is derived from the Middle English /ai/ diphthong, which normally developed into the "long a" sound. In a smaller set of words, such as receive, ei represents the "long e" sound ([i:]). It's rare for ei to represent the "long i" sound ([ai]) in words that have been in English more than two or three hundred years; most words spelled with ei and pronounced with "long i" are recent borrowings, such as Poltergeist (from German), or other words that only recently developed a standard spelling, such as heist (originally a variant of hoist).

share|improve this answer

According to The Complete Atlas Of The British Isles, "eether" is more common in the north of England and "eye-ther" in the south of England, with the Midlands and London using both. The atlas also mentioned a THIRD way of pronouncing the word, "ay-ther", in parts of the north of England, which I suppose is now extinct.

share|improve this answer

Yes that is ok because of the differences in pronunciation.For example:British say people and Americans call people folks.In America they say either with a sound of ey-ither but British always needed to pronounce it like a-ither they are both correct and you do not have to pronounce in a certain way and i dont think there is something in grammer of English (British) which orgnize

share|improve this answer

I'm British and I use either pronunciation. I can't think of any particular rule that I use either. I would consider either equally valid.

I wouldn't say "me either" though - that is certainly an American term.

share|improve this answer

If you listen to Ira Gershwin's lyrics, you realize that this argument has been going on for quite some time in America as well.

You say "either" and I say "either"
You say "neither" I say "neither"
"Either" "either", "neither" "neither"
Let's call the whole thing off

The song points up for comic effect the differences between two lovers, who come from different social strata. Although few Americans would say "potahto" or "tomahto" these days, there still remains a divide in the pronunciation of either, sometimes within the same speaker. Many Americans, even ones who use what you call the British pronunciation most of the time, will say "eether" in constructions like "an 'either/or' proposition".

I find myself using the "ee" pronunciation most of the time, but switching to the other for emphasis: "Either you help me with this project right now or I won't have time to help you with yours."

There are other words which are similarly split with regard to pronunciation to the extent that there is no "correct" way to say them. Envelope comes to mind. Many Americans pronounce the first syllable of that word to rhyme with on. I don't think you can make any hard and fast rules; it just depends on who you are and what you grew up with.

share|improve this answer
Interesting, thanks. I somehow always thought /ˈaɪðə/ sounds a bit more narcissist, or at least emphasizing the importance of the subject (or the speaker, or both). At the same time I find it more "English" and sounding smoother. To someone whose English is not great, neither is it native, it's hard to decide which one to use. – mojuba Dec 2 '10 at 14:03
The use of "potahto" in that song always seemed odd, as I've never heard anyone (British or American) who pronounced it like that. – Steve Melnikoff Dec 2 '10 at 14:04
grr... ONvelope... on of my post hated pronunciations. I don't care if that usage is established or not! It's still wrong! – Mr. Shiny and New 安宇 Dec 2 '10 at 14:58
1  
@Mr. Shiny and New: that pronunciation probably comes from French, just like "garage" in American English which, again, is closer to French. – mojuba Dec 2 '10 at 16:03
2  
@Martha: I'd pronounce the verb differently from either of those: en-VEL-op. – Steve Melnikoff Dec 2 '10 at 21:07
show 4 more comments

I think the variation in British usage is almost all between users, not between examples of use. It's mostly a regional and class distinction: I grew up saying /ˈaɪðə/, and we looked down on people who said /ˈiːðə/.

share|improve this answer
I don't read IPA, but I suspect /ˈaɪðə/ corresponds to EE-THUR. If so, this is actually incorrect! The historically correct pronunciation was always EYE-THUR. (This is also more inline with other Germanic languages.) – Noldorin Dec 2 '10 at 20:16
(Making note of your supposed class difference also doesn't exactly provoke a good response.) – Noldorin Dec 2 '10 at 20:17
3  
No, /aɪ/ is made of a kind a 'a' and a kind of short 'i', and thus represents what you write as 'EYE'. /i:/ is a lengthened /i/, and so means what you write as 'EE'. Thus the prejudice I was silently taught as a child corresponds with your preference. I now know that it is absurd to call one or other pronunciation 'incorrect'. – Colin Fine Dec 3 '10 at 15:36

I actually believe that there are some Germanic influences in the British English pronunciation of the word. In German, you would read eider like /ˈaɪðər/. And in British English, you read either the same way. So I believe that there are these Germanic influences, English being a West-Germanic language. But this is nothing certain, just a guess, as I've also been thinking about the differences between the two.

share|improve this answer
4  
Without evidence, I would be very dubious about this suggestion. People do not learn their native language from writing: they learn most of it before they ever learn to read. – Colin Fine Dec 2 '10 at 12:58
1  
No. The German pronunciation of <ei> as [aɪ] is an innovation in that branch, not a general feature of Germanic families. – Mechanical snail May 23 '12 at 4:49

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.