What is the rule for adjective order?
As a Dutch schoolboy, during English grammar lessons (long ago...) I got one rule hammered into my head like a mantra: time before place:
In the 1930s, in England, nobody prepared for war.
But as I gradually got more fluent in English I started to wonder whether this "rule" really made sense. Let me change the sentence a bit:
In the 1930s, in England, nobody prepared for war, whereas in the 17th and 18th centuries everybody did.
Correct grammar, right? (Let history.stackexchange challenge the historical truth). But I think it makes sense to say
In England, in the 1930s nobody prepared for war, whereas in the 17th and 18th centuries everybody did.
because it emphasizes the contrast between the time periods better than in the former sentence.
And when I just say
In England, in the 1930s, nobody prepared for war.
does that sound warped to a native speaker?
So: how valid (or natural) is this rule?
(By the way, later I learned that the full rule is manner before time before place, but let's not go into that — yet).