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When saying "vis-à-vis" in English, would you pronounce it veez-uh-veez before a word beginning with a vowel sound, as you would in French?

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I don't pronounce the second "s" even if I say something like "vis-a-vis anything else", and I don't think I've ever heard anyone else pronounce it either. – FumbleFingers Feb 28 '12 at 0:12
FumbleFingers is correct. And this is because if it's used in English then the word following vis-a-vis will of course be in English, so the French phrase stands alone. It's pronounced as Mark Beadies suggests below. – Phil Whittington Feb 28 '12 at 0:23
up vote 10 down vote accepted

No, the pronunciation in English never includes the second 's'.

(UK) IPA: /viːz.ɑːˈviː/, /viːz.æˈviː/
(US) IPA: /viz.ɑˈvi/, /viz.əˈvi/

Or roughly, "veez-ah-vee" or "veez-uh-vee" whether before a vowel or a consonant.

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