It is alright to use the same contraction, 'He's', to mean both 'He is' and 'He has'? Example, " He's angry.", "He's been angry.", He's a beautiful house."
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closed as general reference by Urbycoz, RegDwighт♦ Feb 23 '12 at 11:03
This question is too basic; it can be definitively and permanently answered by a single link to a standard internet reference source designed specifically to find that type of information. See the FAQ for guidance on how to improve it.
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Yes and no. You do use "he's" for "he is" and "he has". You do use "he's got something" for "he has got something." You do not use "he's something" for "he has something." [Note that according to @Optimal Cynic this is allowed in some parts of the world] Therefore the first two sentences you proposed are correct:
But the third one is incorrect. You cannot shorten "he has a house" to "he's a house." You can only shorten "he has got a house" to "he's got a house." [Again, note what @Optimal Cynic claims] More examples:
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Yes. He's can mean either he is or he has depending on context. She's and it's work the same way. Pick any reference. |
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