What does “before” mean here?

Question

Kim frequently exhibited her vast knowledge of baseball before complete strangers.

Before is usually used to depict a time line, so this use is confusing for me.

Chris Bye · Answer 1 · 2012-02-06 21:06:44Z

up vote 1 down vote

In front of is pretty close, but I believe that for an audience of is more correct.

Using in front of indicates some physical relation, which need not be the case.

answered Feb 6 '12 at 21:06

Chris Bye
1647

	In front of also has the meaning of for an audience of, doesn't it? – Armen Ծիրունյան Feb 7 '12 at 0:15
	@slothsberry can you show an example? – Louis Rhys Feb 7 '12 at 1:11
	@LouisRhys What! you want an example? In front of everyone? :) – Kris Feb 7 '12 at 4:50

ncmathsadist · Answer 2 · 2012-02-06 20:59:05Z

up vote -1 down vote

Here we "before" used in the physical sense see in an old, familiar nursery rhyme.

When the pie was opened,
The birds began to sing;
Wasn't that a dainty dish,
To set before the king?

answered Feb 6 '12 at 20:59

ncmathsadist
63118

Armen Ծիրունյան · Answer 3 · 2012-02-06 19:49:47Z

up vote 10 down vote

Before means in front of here. Other examples:

Kneel before the King!

He didn't have any experience of appearing before a large audience.

Before you is a list of topics we will discuss today.

This meaning of before is rather formal.

edited Feb 6 '12 at 19:49

answered Feb 6 '12 at 18:29

Armen Ծիրունյան
4,75411045

	At first I thought it was only "formal" because it so often occurs in such forms as Kneel before Zod!. But you're quite right - even your third example would be "In front of you..." in casual speech. It's the same "in front of" meaning as the temporal sense - just that here it's "in front" in space rather than in time. – FumbleFingers Feb 6 '12 at 19:14
	It's all relative to the human body and its projections, metaphorical and other. This is treated in Fillmore's chapter on "Space". – John Lawler Feb 6 '12 at 19:57
	@John: Yes, I think the connection between in front of and before is inherent, because in many languages the same word is used for both. – Armen Ծիրունյան Feb 6 '12 at 19:59

3 Answers