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“Manifest” vs. “manifested”

I'm proofreading a manuscript for an author who writes extensively on the presence or glory of God manifested in this natural, earthly realm. The author uses the terms "manifest presence of God" and "manifested presence of God" interchangeably. I'm concerned this is not accurate.

I read a previous post on this site about the topic, but it does not seem to address my question in this context. I welcome input.

Here's an example of usage from the text:

...As I continue devoting myself to God, I continue experiencing the manifest presence of God. His manifested presence is a supply that strengthens my spirit and makes me strong and keeps me going on and on, further and deeper in God.

Dear friend, living in the manifest presence of God is a choice. It’s a choice we must make in order to go forward in God. We must make the choice and then contend against the natural, physical sense realm, which will always try to crowd out God’s presence in our lives. The natural way of life tries desperately to pull us and everything we do into the flesh to do without Him. It’s Mary and Martha all over again.

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marked as duplicate by Mitch, FumbleFingers, aedia λ, Kate Gregory, RegDwigнt Jan 29 '12 at 5:46

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

Can you clarify your question a little? Are you interested in the meanings of the two words and how they differ, or just whether the author can use the two words interchangeably? – J.T. Grimes Jan 27 '12 at 20:39

As noted in the previous post,

"Manifest" is an adjective, meaning "clearly visible".

"Manifest" is also a verb, meaning "make visible", which has a past participle "manifested".

Both are correct usages here, but mixing them as the author does here does seem confusing and should be avoided, in my opinion. In fact, both words can be dropped without loss of meaningful content here. More purple prose, I guess :).

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"Verges should be avoided"? Can you clarify what you mean by "verges" here? – Jay Jan 27 '12 at 21:21
"Both words can be dropped without loss ..." Interesting suggestion. From just the sample above, this would appear to be true. But if the larger context distinguishes between a manifest presence and an invisible presence, maybe not. (Just a rambling thought.) – Jay Jan 27 '12 at 21:22
Thanks, Jay, that was going to be "verges on purple prose" but I toned it down a bit...only to add it later. And to your other point, yes I agree they may have been referring to the visible as opposed to the invisible presence, but even in that case they'd only need use "manifest" once. Also, off topic, but "living in the manifest presence of God is a choice" is bad theology IMO. We don't tell God when to manifest Himself. – JeffSahol Jan 27 '12 at 21:29

I would submit that, at least connotatively, a manifest quality is pre-existing, permanent, and integral.

Some intelligent design theories posit that the existence of a supernatural creator is manifest in the delicate balance of the fundamental physical constants, without which the universe would not exist in its known form.

A manifested quality, by contrast, has a beginning or end. Rather than being inherent, it is something that has to be added to the world of experience.

The power of Moses's God, manifested in the plagues that befell Egypt, was inadequate to sway Pharaoh.

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