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Which of these sentences are proper? :

  1. If we have further questions with regards to x&y, to whom could we direct our questions?

  2. If we have further questions with regards to x&y, to whom could we direct our questions to?

Or is it true that both are grammatical and either one could do?

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There's a horrible example of this in 'Live and Let Die' But in this ever changing world in which we live in. –  nicodemus13 Jun 27 '12 at 17:22

3 Answers 3

up vote 11 down vote accepted

No, the first one is grammatical, but the second one is not.

The reason is the repeated to. When you move the interrogative pronoun whom to the front of the question, it turns out to be the object of the preposition to. So moving it splits a phrase. This is OK, and you can just leave the to at the end.

  • Whom could we direct our questions to?

However, if you're going to use whom (most people would use who), you probably will want to Pied-pipe the preposition to along with it, to keep the phrase together.

  • To whom could we direct our questions?

What you don't do is copy to whom to the front and also keep to at the end.

  • *To whom could we direct our questions to?
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Haj Ross tells me that this phenomenon is called "double-dipping". –  John Lawler Aug 22 at 17:00

To whom would we direct our questions?

The second to is superfluous.

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I think you meant superfluous –  FumbleFingers Jan 18 '12 at 5:33
    
Yeah, superlative doesn't fit there. –  Mahnax Jan 18 '12 at 6:20
    
Absolutely right, Fumble. Thanks for the catch. –  MikeVaughan Jan 22 '12 at 1:23

The usual way of putting it would be If we have further questions about x&y, who should we ask?

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+1 or, who could we ask –  MετάEd Jan 18 '12 at 16:39
    
'... whom should we ask?' –  nicodemus13 Jun 27 '12 at 17:20

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