In writing an email today I came up with the following sentence:
"We have had two other ladies express an interest in the room."
I'm a native English-English speaker and this felt fine to me. My partner (who is Spanish) felt that the bare-infinitive 'express' in conjunction with the 'have had' was wrong. She felt the closest acceptable option would be the gerund form ie:
"We have had two other ladies expressing an interest in the room."
To me that sounds less normal and a slightly different meaning.
It is something to do with the 'had' specifically, because she felt (as I do) that with a different verb it could be correct, eg:
"We have heard two other ladies express an interest in the room."
I searched online for grammar reference sites and the closest I could find to an example matching my construction was specific to having someone do something for you, for example:
"I have had my lawyer look into it"
(and it was noted that this was an American English construction)
But is this valid in my case?
I'd like someone to confirm or refute whether my original phrase is correct, preferably with an external reference :)