There is no headache strong enough, that a good coffee won't relieve
There is no headache strong enough, that a good coffee won't relieve.
I know that this sentence is grammatically correct, but I still can't find a suitable grammar rule that would explain why strong enough is used after the noun in this sentence.
Why don't we say "There's no strong enough headache, that a good coffee won't relieve"?
It doesn't look like a reduced relative clause that usually occur with past participles, such as "the people skilled in design" ("the people which are skilled in design"). We usually place such adjectives like possible, available, and few others after the noun. This is not the case.
Can anybody explain the word order to me? It would be even better if someone provides a proof from a grammar book.