The spelling of “eureka”
Why should Byron write "Now we clap Our hands and cry 'Eureka!'", Childe Harold, iv. st. 81? Being a hellenophile he should know that there were other options to spell 'eureka', (a) 'heureka' - the correct latinized form of the verb, and (b) 'evrika' - the contemporary demotic form. Was it a mistake, a mere slip of the pen? It seems that the form 'eureka' became common usage by the hand of Byron from then on.