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One of my friends asked me this question, but I really don't understand what it means. Please can someone explain it to me.

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I've voted to close as "not a real question" because I don't get the question either. –  Hugo Dec 13 '11 at 10:15
    
rory has answered what i needed to know :) –  nickfrancis.me Dec 13 '11 at 10:33
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I would understand this as an attempt at a joke - for the reason mentioned by Rory. A joke, I might add, that simplifies the condition somewhat! Akin to the "I'm a schizophrenic, and so am I", 'joke'. –  Matt Dec 13 '11 at 10:37
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closed as not a real question by Hugo, TimLymington, Matt Эллен, Marthaª, Mitch Dec 13 '11 at 15:39

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, visit the help center.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

1 Answer

up vote 5 down vote accepted

What your friend is saying is that as some dyslexics may have trouble with the order of letters or words, "vice-versa" is irrelevant to them as it means "in reverse order"

Obviously your friend isn't taking into account the variable extent of dyslexia in different individuals - many can read perfectly well, and others can given the use of systems to help identify letters and letter order.

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