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As a foreign English speaker, I always wondered if "for good" is an old style English phrase, or it is relatively new. For me, it seems like an old style phrase, but I don't know anything about etymology.

Can you shed some light on it?

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Related: Why does "for good" mean "forever"? – Daniel Oct 31 '11 at 17:18
up vote 2 down vote accepted

In the sense as a valid conclusion; hence, as a final act, finally it is first recorded in the early sixteenth century. It remains in current use.

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Personally I think it's a cut-down version of for good and all (noun,sense:5). – FumbleFingers Oct 30 '11 at 14:22
Indeed. The OED's earliest citation includes 'and all' – Barrie England Oct 30 '11 at 14:38

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