I asked a question on the origin of the word aforementioned. To me, it would seem that this word should be beforementioned instead. Why does it begin with afore-?
Also, does this mean afore can be used as a substitute for before?
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closed as general reference by Hugo, JSBձոգչ, z7sg Ѫ, aedia λ, FumbleFingers Oct 24 '11 at 14:18
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The OED’s earliest citation is dated 1587, in a work by Sir Philip Sydney. Afore is from Old English on foran, with the second element meaning in front, in advance. In the OED’s words, ‘Afore is now mostly obsolete in literature, its place being taken by before, but it is retained in the Bible and Prayer-book, is common in the dialects generally, as well as in "vulgar" London speech, and in nautical language.’ The earliest occurrence of before predates that of afore, despite its Old English origin, by several centuries. |
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