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When do I use “I” instead of “me?”

Apparently I use 'Me and xxx' in conversation often enough that a foreign English speaker I work with has started using it as well. When he said it I automatically corrected him. ;)

Clearly I've picked this up from somewhere. Does anyone know if it's a regional variation? I do recall a teacher having a go at someone over saying it when I was at school, but he Wasn't From Round Here...

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marked as duplicate by FumbleFingers, simchona, aedia λ, Daniel, RiMMER Oct 20 '11 at 19:03

This question was marked as an exact duplicate of an existing question.

It's a common "error", but I've never heard anyone suggest that it's particularly associated with any specific regional dialect. It probably crops up everywhere people speak English. – FumbleFingers Oct 20 '11 at 15:20
Hence the famous song: "My shadow and I" – mgb Oct 20 '11 at 15:21
Voted to close, 'tis a duplicate. – user11550 Oct 20 '11 at 15:40
This isn't a duplicate question. It asks not "What's the rule?" but "Is there regional variation of those following the rule?" – Hugo Oct 20 '11 at 15:53
@FumbleFingers: this example has been hugely tied up for a long time with questions of formal vs. colloquial, prestige vs. non-prestige use, hyper-correction, etc; it definitely has demographic variation, and I’d be amazed if there isn’t sometimes a strong regional component to that. – PLL Oct 20 '11 at 16:25

Standard English does not allow me and X in subject position but it is found in other varieties of the language.

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Emonds argues that it is found in all naturally learned varieties of English. – Colin Fine Oct 20 '11 at 16:29
postition or position? – Mehper C. Palavuzlar Oct 20 '11 at 16:39
@ColinFine but is Standard English a naturally learned variety of English? – morphail Oct 20 '11 at 18:12
Can't find the exact reference in that rather long paper, but, on the other hand, ‘[Kim and me saw the accident] will be heard in the speech of speakers of dialects that have a different rule for case inflection of pronouns: they use the accusative forms (me, him, her, us, them) whenever the pronoun is coordinated. Standard English does not.’ (Huddleston and Pullum, ‘Cambridge Grammar of the English Language’) – Barrie England Oct 20 '11 at 19:19
I realise that in Huddleston and Pullum's example the coordinated element (Kim) precedes rather than follows 'me', but the grammatical point is the same. – Barrie England Oct 20 '11 at 19:29

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