The following is from the 12th chapter of Psalms in the King James Bible:
5 For the oppression of the poor, for the sighing of the needy, now will I arise, saith the LORD; I will set him in safety from him that puffeth at him. 6 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.
The anaphor "them" in verse 7 can be associated to either the antecedent "words" of verse 6, or the "poor" and "needy" of verse 5. It's clear in other translations that the proper coreference is "them" and the "poor and needy," however verse six causes a disruption in the English language and introduces a new antecedent, "the words."
Verse six reads more like a side-note on verse 5 (specifically, the promise to arise and protect), a deviation from the direct message. Is there a name for these types of meta-statements that may show up from time to time in discussions. If so, what types of rules govern their usage?
I am trying to find out if it's possible to objectively demonstrate the correct antecedent when something like this takes place.