Over at Judaism.SE someone asked a question with the title
(1) What is the source for not walking with one's hands behind his back
and someone else edited it to read
(2) What is the source for not walking with one's hands behind one's back
commenting (in the edit summary) "antecedent-pronoun agreement".
Ignore, if you please, the gender-neutrality issue. I'm asking here about the ability of one to serve as a pronoun replacing an antecedent.
To me, one cannot replace an antecedent that appears in the text, so it needs to be replaced by a pronoun (like him) just as a noun or name needs to be. Thus, the original question title was correct.
Obviously, to the user who edited this question that's not the case: rather, one is just like any other pronoun in that it can replace an antecedent. In this case, and in fact usually, it replaces only one itself.
Which of us is right, according to common practice? according to style guides and grammars? Wikipedia says "Either form is considered to be correct in formal English."