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I know that 'Jutland', a part of Denmark, comes from the Danish 'Jylland', which describes the same region. But was that name just invented at random, or does it come from the verb 'jut', as the land juts out into the ocean?

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up vote 3 down vote accepted

Possibly, it was named that because at one time the Jutes lived there. From etymonline:

Jute: O.E. Eotas, one of the ancient Gmc. inhabitants of Jutland in Denmark; traditionally, during the 5c. invasion of England, they were said to have settled in Kent and Hampshire. The name is related to O.N. Iotar.

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There's still considerable debate about whether the people named by Bede as the Jutes genuinely originated from Jutland. Bede, in 731, names the Jutes only once in a text he actually pilfered from Gildas Sapiens (De Excidio Britanniae - 540s) and a more logical origin is that of the "Saxones Eucii" - who lived just "in front" of Kent where they landed. –  Alain Pannetier Φ Jul 10 '11 at 18:08
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It would never have occured to me Jutland could be named after anything but the Jutes. –  FumbleFingers Jul 10 '11 at 20:54
    
Coming to that, it seems that the Jutes were called Jutes because they lived in Denmark!! –  Thursagen Jul 10 '11 at 22:37
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The word jut comes from French (related to jeter, to throw), and it seems pretty clear that the word Jutland comes from a Germanic language. So the similarity seems likely to be a complete coincidence. –  Peter Shor Jul 10 '11 at 23:20
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