This is in a song I’ve heard. Is it grammatically correct?
Technically this is grammatically correct, however it is not common for someone to use the first person for both the subject and the direct object of a sentence, as it comes across as somewhat redundant.
"Now I lay down to sleep" has the same meaning and is a more conventional way of saying this. Although I'm sure the choice to use "Now I lay me down to sleep" was done for poetic reasons and there's nothing wrong with that.
Nice use of the middle voice. Since the subject is acting upon itself, i.e., it is both subject and object, so use of the transitive verb "lay." Without the object (me) it would have to be "Now I lie down to sleep" (the verb would have to be the intransitive "lie" not the transitive "lay.") Use of "myself" here would be inappropriate as "myself" would take a preposition (usually implied), e.g., I bought a bike [for] myself; I finished the job [by] myself, I gave [to] myself a birthday gift. (Except, "myself" can be used emphatically, "I myself won the prize.") So "I lay myself" does not really work.
protected by tchrist Jun 30 '14 at 4:20
Thank you for your interest in this question.
Because it has attracted low-quality answers, posting an answer now requires 10 reputation on this site.
Would you like to answer one of these unanswered questions instead?