I have two related questions about the word "naïve" and its relatives. The first is, shouldn't it be "naïf" if the subject is male? I've been told that it's correct to use the correct ending of foreign words when applied to objects in English with determinate gender (i.e. people).
Second, if not, is the diaeresis absolutely necessary? If "naïve" has become an English word, is the accent still compulsory? (I'm sure there are examples of foreign words whose accents have atrophied away as they become English words)
Third, should the noun from "naïve" be "naïvety" or "naïveté"?