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In a recent question (since deleted), CDO (Cambridge Dictionaries Online) is shown to give the following examples for (intercategorial polysemes of) since:

since adverb
B2 from a particular time in the past until a later time, or until now:

Emma went to work in New York a year ago, and we haven't seen her since.

He started working for the company when he left school, and has been there ever since (= and is still there).

I've long since (= long ago) forgotten any Latin I ever learned.

More examples

Hostilities between the two groups have been in abeyance since last June.

Roz has adopted one or two funny mannerisms since she's been away.

...

Their movements have been severely circumscribed since the laws came into effect.

Your piano playing has really come on since I last heard you play.

Some would argue that all these usages should be classed as 'preposition' usages, and I'd certainly class 'since last June' as a prepositional phrase, but I don't think anyone would argue that the second group of examples should be classed as 'adverb' usages.

(To be fair, another 'version' of CDO seems to correct this error.)

Do people know of other obvious (rather than debatable) errors in respected works (grammars, dictionaries, and perhaps over-dogmatic style guides)?

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    How would this be answerable on this forum? The question(s) asked are only answerable in yes/no form; "errors" runs the gamut from misspelling to intentionally misleading to anachronistic; and "respected works" could be practically any particular presentation in any media type. Does propaganda count?
    – SrJoven
    Feb 1, 2015 at 0:21
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    Certainly there have been errors found in many generally-respected works. It's unclear what use a catalog of such errors would serve, though.
    – Hot Licks
    Feb 1, 2015 at 1:42
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    I didn't close vote, but I don't know how this can be authoritatively answered, either. I don't know. Can we be reasonably certain that "people"--whoever they are--know of reference work errors? If you're asking if someone on this site can reference an error, that's a better question than "Do people know ..?" Sure. Maybe some people know. It can't necessarily be proven. But even still, it sounds like a list request, and that isn't on topic.
    – SrJoven
    Feb 1, 2015 at 13:58
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    The person who close-voted using the 'There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format' c-v reason has perhaps unwittingly provided an answer, though I'd say that most dictionaries etc cited on ELU are usually pretty reliable. Of course this question is really Meta. But then of course few of the people posting 'It says in the dictionary ...' bother to read anything on Meta. Feb 2, 2015 at 10:54
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    In addition to the errors category, I'd add oversights. I couldn't find the plurals fora for forum or equilibria for equilibrium in the online OED. Irregular plurals are shown on the Forms page: forum has none; equilibrium has one, but equilibria isn't shown. I got this reply: "The OED entries for forum and equilibrium are unrevised, and the policy about irregular plurals may have been different or not consistently applied when the first edition was worked on. Once these entries are revised and published on oed.com, the plural information for each will be stated."
    – DjinTonic
    Dec 7, 2023 at 19:29

1 Answer 1

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In the realm of word histories, I've mentioned this error before (in an answer to a question about Preventative vs. preventive). Merriam-Webster's Webster's Dictionary of English Usage (1989) has this commentary on preventive versus preventative:

preventative, preventive The critics have panned preventative for over a century, preferring it shorter synonym preventive in spite of the fact that both words have been around for over 300 years and both have had regular use by reputable writers. Here is the basic premise behind the objections: if two similar adjectives are derived from the same verb, then one of them must be in some way inferior to the other, and the likely culprit is the longer one. But the only real difference in status between these two words is that preventative is much less common than preventive. If you decide you like the sound of the extra syllable, and are willing to brave possible criticism for it, you may take heart from the example set by these writers: [examples from the works of Daniel Defoe, George Washington, Henry Wallace, Oran Brown, Frederic Wertham, and Michael Stugrin omitted].

You may wonder how preventative came to be objected to. The earliest attack is in [Richard Meade] Bache [Vulgarisms and Other Errors of Speech] 1869; he said that there was no such word. Bache's book was one of those used by [Alfred] Ayres [The Verbalist] 1881, who also criticized preventative. From Ayers it went to [Frank] Vizetelly [A Desk-Book of Errors in English] 1906, [Ambrose] Bierce [Write It Right] 1909, [H.N.] MacCracken & Helen] Sandison [{Manual of Good English] 1917, and [Charles] Lurie [How to Say It] 1927. [Henry] Fowler [A Dictionary of Modern English Usage] 1926 picked it up too, and so it has gone right down to the 1980s. A couple of commentators—[Bergen] Evans [Comfortable Words] 1962 and [William] Watt [A Short Guide to English Usage] 1967—realize that preventative is acceptable. Probably none of the recent objectors realizes that his opinion goes back to Bache 1869. But the moderns do not claim that preventative is nonexistent anymore; nowadays they say it is wrong because it is "irregularly formed." That is not so, of course. It is formed in just the same way as authoritative, quantitative, normative, talkative, and other words to which no one objects.

Despite the painstaking inquiry that Merriam-Webster's researchers made into the origin of criticism of preventative, they somehow failed to notice this entry for preventative (which appears in small type between the entries for preventable and prevented in the 1847 edition of Merriam-Webster's An American Dictionary of the English Language:

[PREVENTATIVE is a gross blunder.]

The 1857 revision of this edition of the dictionary takes the remark about preventative out of brackets and moves it to a more sensible location—the end of the entry for preventive, but it doesn't change the wording. The next new edition of the American Dictionary of the English Language (1864) and the first edition of Webster's International Dictionary (1890) have this entry for preventative:

Preventative, n. That which prevents ; — incorrectly used instead of preventive, q.v.

James Martin, in his pre-Bache book, The Orthoepist: Containing a Selection of All Those Words of the English Language Usually Pronounced Improperly (1851), gives due credit to Webster's for the objection:

PREVENTIVE, a. Tending to hinder. [Preventative is a gross blunder.—Webster.]

And Charles Northend, Exercises for Dictation and Pronunciation (1872) repeats Martin's wording without any mention of Bache.

So whatever sins may justly be set in the record against Richard Meade Bache, being the originator of published hostility toward preventative is certainly not one of them.

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  • Thanks for the work here, Sven. I believe that 'But it says in X that ...'needs the caveat 'X has been known to be wrong'. (I'm not trying to start a witch-hunt, just demolishing a shibboleth). Feb 1, 2015 at 9:26
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    Serious reference works are obviously not to be dismissed lightly. But I'm a fan of confirmation from multiple sources, of research into alternative explanations, and of cautiousness when it comes to laying down the law.
    – Sven Yargs
    Feb 1, 2015 at 9:37
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    It's also worth adding that OED is happy to list preventative as neither incorrect nor obsolete, with citations from 1655 to the present. This particular pair may be indicative of a US/Br split, and that could be the reason for MW's apparent confusion.
    – Andrew Leach
    Feb 1, 2015 at 14:06
  • @Sven Yargs That's been filched for my 'undersupported / unsupported answer comeback' comment class. You may see it again:-) (though almost certainly not after your answers). Feb 1, 2015 at 14:30

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