In all of the places that I've ever lived (various parts of the western US), the modal verbs shall and will are almost perfectly synonymous, and will is preferred by an enormous margin. Shall is used largely to give a note of pomposity or archaism to an utterance that would otherwise have will.
However, I gather that this isn't the case in all parts of the English-speaking world. Does anyone know of a study or reference that shows the distribution of shall/will preferences? Are there any regions that maintain a rigorous semantic or grammatical distinction between them?
(Note: this is not a poll. Please don't answer with "Well, I say this.")