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Is "liaised" the past tense of liaison? If so, is this correct or common usage?

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closed as off-topic by RyeɃreḁd, tchrist, David M, choster, aedia λ Mar 10 '14 at 17:05

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Liaison is a noun and cannot have a past tense. But yes, liaised is the past tense of the verb to liaise.

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Just adding re: "is this . . . common usage?" that "to liaise" is not common in AmE compared to "liaison". My dictionary says "Chiefly British" so maybe more common in the UK. – joseph_morris Mar 8 '14 at 23:19
    
@joseph_morris I didn't know that, thanks. In BrE 'to liaise' is commonly used in business/work situations whereas 'liaison' is more social/sexual, especially of an illicit affair. Is that the same in AmE too? – Mynamite Mar 8 '14 at 23:42
    
I think if you say 'they were in a liaison' it implies sexuality. But if you said 'Ben was in liaison with Martha' it would be taken to be a business relationship. – WS2 Mar 9 '14 at 0:36
    
@WS2 I think I'd be more likely to say 'Ben was liaising with Martha', but both would be acceptable. – Mynamite Mar 9 '14 at 0:44
    
@Mynamite, the literal denotations are the same, but the predominate usage is of the probably-illicit-affair variety. Perhaps, being more puritanical over here, people want to avoid inadvertently giving the impression that they are having an affair with a business contact. Or it was an effect of the movie "Dangerous Liaisons." I dunno. – joseph_morris Mar 9 '14 at 7:11

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