I was confused by the ending line of the following sentence from the article titled, “The last, disposable action hero” in the February 28th edition of Time magazine:
“American movie market now makes up less than a third of global box-office receipts, studios tend to favor projects featuring explosions, car chases and doomsday scenarios — a universal language of violence that translates easily in China, India, Brazil and Europe. Almost without exception, the movies stars some beefcake with pecs that make Ben-Hur’s seem puny.”
Oxford Advanced Learners’ English Dictionary defines beefcake as:
Noun: (slang) men with big muscles, especially those that appear in sex show and magazines.
But the text drops a "be" verb between 'the movie stars" and "beafcake." It doesn't appear to me somehow flow smooth.
Is “beefcake” being used here as a verb to mean showing off their big muscles?
Why is the word “some” necessary, after emphasizing “Almost without exception,”? What meaning does the word, “some” add to here?
As hindsight, I came to realize that “the movies” is the subject, “stars” is the verb, and “(some) beefcake” is the object. In my above question, I took “the movies stars” a subject as I thought it should be “star,” not “stars,” if the ‘star” is a verb, because the subject (the movie) is in the plural form. Is “The movies star*s* some beefcake with pecs” grammatically right expression?