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Is it correct to invert the subordinate sentence in English? For instance:

When the time comes, so shall we reign the land!

If it is correct, what is the rule? Or is it only in old English?

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I am confused about what you are referring to. Are you talking about the inverted verb-subject order in the second clause? –  Kosmonaut Mar 5 '11 at 15:34
    
yes, the inverted verb-subject order. –  sterz Mar 6 '11 at 4:54
    
But here the first clause is subordinate. The inverted one is the main clause. –  Jason Orendorff Apr 15 '11 at 18:06
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1 Answer

up vote 4 down vote accepted

That is an archaic construction (and not limited to subordinate clauses/sentences); one wouldn't use it today except in dialog in a period piece.

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Is something wicked this way comes also archaic? –  sterz Mar 5 '11 at 6:57
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Yes -- it's a quotation from Shakespeare's Macbeth (Act IV, Scene I). –  bye Mar 5 '11 at 7:07
    
"I like cinema." "So do I." –  kiamlaluno Mar 5 '11 at 15:41
    
Also archaic, I'm afraid. (Even that meaning of the word so only holds in certain specific phrases.) Old forms hold on in frequently-used words and phrases even as the world changes around them. There are a few individual idiomatic phrases you just have to know -- like so do I and how to pluralize ox. There is no general rule of grammar to apply. –  bye Mar 5 '11 at 23:14
    
That meaning of so works in a surprising variety of places; see this question. But it is definitely grammatically unique. –  Jason Orendorff Apr 15 '11 at 17:58
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