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Some examples of a weird thing I found. I want to call it a verb tense, but I'm not sure that's accurate:

"24.6% reported having have been injured due to excessive consumption of alcohol."

"When I got up to clear the table, only having have eaten a third of the fish—which was shockingly filling—I noticed that..."

Is this grammatically correct? If so, what is it called? Present participle of the past perfect?

Normally after "having," you would have to use the past participle, but in these cases "have" is used instead of "had."

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The first time I read it, I read "having had been" and "having had eaten". It took me a while before I realized that they're written differently. Interesting. – Damkerng T. Nov 26 '13 at 9:07
Thanks. I actually forgot that part of the question. Is "having had been" and "having had eaten" ok? What are those called? – The Phil Lee Nov 26 '13 at 16:34
I don't really know if they are okay. But I have feeling that they are not recommended in formal writing. I probably parse them as such because I am quite familiar with phrases like would have had done, could have had done, should have had done, which are so abundant. But if you asked a teacher, she would tell you to remove that had at once. – Damkerng T. Nov 26 '13 at 16:57
This question appears to be off-topic because it is about a non-existant tense in English. – medica Sep 6 '14 at 8:11

I don't think these are correct. Having have been would only be correct if the word having is a possession, for example: The dreams I've been having have been about how ...

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I'm not sure how to prove it, but these are not correct English. I have never come across that formation other than due to a lack of proof-reading. Your two examples should read "having eaten" and "having been".

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Both sentences are incorrect because the extra "have" is redundant in both the sentences. But forgiving those errors, "having been injured" looks like a gerund phrase. "Having eaten a third of the fish" seems like a past participle clause to me. Gerund phrases and participle clauses are tricky to differentiate between, so I welcome anyone to correct me if I am wrong.

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The extra "have" is wrong.

"I hate writing. I love having written." -- Dorothy Parker.

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Report can be used transitively (report an issue) or intransitively (report to a superior).

Here it is used transitively and takes a the verb have (which then goes in the gerund having).

Have can be used by itself as an auxiliary or a transitive. Here it's used as an auxiliary, and auxiliary have takes a verb in the past participle. In the example, the next verb is have but it is in the present participle having instead of the past participle had. Even then, auxiliary had forming the perfect can't take another perfect-forming auxiliary have (but it can take the possessive have or obligation-indicating have to, for instance)

The only time I can fathom "having had [past part.] would be if I oddly moved a direct object from in between the string of verbs: "I have had made for me three dolls" —> "Having had made for me three dolls, I ...". But even then, it sounds quite old timey and still doesn't allow the second have to be in the present participle.

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