There seems to be a subtle difference between the infinitive form of the verb 'to be' after a verb and the inflected form of the same; what is it?
This effect, if there is one, seems most noticeable in (or only applies to) some sentences that reference a subject's beliefs.
John claims to be Michael Jackson's reincarnation.
John claims that he is Michael Jackson's reincarnation.
John believes Michael Jackson to be reincarnated.
John believes that Michael Jackson is reincarnated.
If the inflected and infinitive form of the verb 'to be' convey things that are subtly different, what is that difference?