Take the 2-minute tour ×
English Language & Usage Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

What is the difference between the following two sentences?

  • I have had a headache since this morning.
  • I am having a headache since this morning.
share|improve this question

2 Answers 2

up vote 3 down vote accepted

I've had a headache since past.time.point is normal, idiomatic, and grammatical.

*I'm having a headache since past.time.point, however, is ungrammatical,
because the present progressive construction ('m having) refers to the present moment,
while the prepositional phrase (since past.time.point) refers to a length of time in the past,
starting at past.time.point and continuing to the present,
rather than directly to present.time.point, which is what the present progressive needs. Thus,
I'm having a headache right now/today/at the moment are all OK, for instance.

As Barrie points out, today morning is not grammatical in British or American English;
the idiom there is this morning instead.

share|improve this answer

Neither is grammatical in British Standard English, where what you want is I've had a headache since this morning. However, I believe today morning is found in Indian English.

share|improve this answer
    
Barrie I have edited my question. –  Polppan Sep 3 '13 at 19:32
    
I'm not saying 'today morning' is wrong. It just isn't found in American or British English. –  Barrie England Sep 3 '13 at 19:41

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.