When studying some old Christian history I came across something interesting so I asked it on Christianity.SE: Why did the council of Laodicea condemn “Judaizing” Sabbath rest?
One of the answers claims:
It [Judaize] was a phrase that originated in the council of Laodicea.
So I first want to know if this is true. I next want to know what the history of the word is. I'm pretty sure the council was not in English, so why would the translators choose the word Judaize?
I see a potential for this being off-topic because a proper answer will include a look at the original word used in the council. I will gladly accept help to edit this question.