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When studying some old Christian history I came across something interesting so I asked it on Christianity.SE: Why did the council of Laodicea condemn “Judaizing” Sabbath rest?

One of the answers claims:

It [Judaize] was a phrase that originated in the council of Laodicea.

So I first want to know if this is true. I next want to know what the history of the word is. I'm pretty sure the council was not in English, so why would the translators choose the word Judaize?

I see a potential for this being off-topic because a proper answer will include a look at the original word used in the council. I will gladly accept help to edit this question.

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up vote 2 down vote accepted

The OED says that Judaize come from:

late L. jūdaizāre (Vulg.), a. Gr. ἱουδαΐζειν (Galat. ii. 14)

So they just used the same word as they found there.

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While most English translations gloss this word as "live as the Jews do" or some such phrase, Young's Literal Translation (1884) uses the word Judaize. Obviously, the Council itself would have been held in Greek. – Ross Presser Aug 31 '13 at 19:26

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