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We have been learning since childhood that

Has can only be used with third person singular

but I have seen and heard people using has otherwise. For example, the other day I was reading that article in which the author wrote 'I has no other choice' (which according to grammar rules should be 'I have no other choice').

Is this appropriate use?

If yes, then does it indicate some kind of emphasis or Is it used to give weight to sentence?

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You may wish to check out our sister site for English Language Learners. It’s “for people who are learning or teaching English as a foreign language”, whereas here we’re more intended “for linguists, etymologists, and (serious) English language enthusiasts” –  tchrist Aug 20 '13 at 14:23
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english.stackexchange.com/q/20356/14666 ;0 –  Kris Aug 21 '13 at 6:07
    
@tchrist Not this. This is for grown ups :) –  Kris Aug 21 '13 at 6:08
    
Where did you find those sentences? The source is necessary to fix the context. –  Kris Aug 21 '13 at 6:10

1 Answer 1

Has is the third person singular present tense form of the verb have, and in Standard English it is used for nothing else. However, other dialects may use it for other persons, and that may account for what you read.

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Just to be extra clear: This means that you (HappyDev specifically here) should not use ‘I has’ in English, neither written nor spoken. The form is only used in a very limited subset of dialects of English—everywhere else, it would be considered ungrammatical. Since you clearly are not a speaker of any of these dialects, you would only end up sounding like you don’t know proper English if you used it. –  Janus Bahs Jacquet Aug 20 '13 at 12:36
    
As well as possibly in the odd dialect, this usage went through a phase of being popular in jocular use in the UK as an imitation of the Ali G character. –  Neil Coffey Aug 20 '13 at 13:36
    
It seems more of a meme-fever: english.stackexchange.com/q/20356/14666 –  Kris Aug 21 '13 at 6:08

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