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  • Whereof, thereof, hereof
  • whither, thither, hither
  • wherefrom, therefrom, herefrom
  • wherewith, therewith, herewith.

Are these related to German da- and wo- compounds?

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Yes. Both languages' terms are historically related; they both come from the PIE interrogative root *kʷo- and the demonstrative root *to-. In English, PIE *t became 'th', and PIE *kʷ became 'wh'; but in Latin they stayed and became 'qu' and 't', as in quantum/tantum, qualis/talis. In Greek *to stayed, too, becoming the masculine article, but labiodentals like *kʷ got smeared all over the chart. – John Lawler May 20 '13 at 19:41
Jeez! I was about to ask exactly the same question... – José Hdz. Stgo. Mar 5 '14 at 5:38

OED 1 treats constructions of this sort s.v Here, adv. 16. *Here- in combination with adverbs and prepositions

These originated, as in the other Teutonic languages, in the juxtaposition of here and another adv. Qualifying the same verb. Thus, in HEREBEFORE, 1st quot. hǽr beforan = here (in this document), before (i. e. at an earlier place). Cf. *hereinbefore, hereinafter, in which herein is similarly used. But as many advs. were identical in form with prepositions, and there was little or no practical difference between ‘here, at an earlier place’ and ‘before or at an earlier place than this’, the adv. came to be felt as a prep. governing here (=this place); and, on the analogy of this, new combinations were freely formed of here (there, where) with prepositions which had never been adverbs, as herefor, hereto, hereon, herewith.

That suggests to me that the German and English constructions are independent but parallel due to their syntactic similarity.

Hither, thither, whither however are independent words, not compounds; they are variously derived and have influenced each other before reaching the 'modern' forms.

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I used to use this as an example of a paradigm in my Intro class. – John Lawler May 20 '13 at 20:33
@JohnLawler And I thought I was just putting in two cents' worth! – StoneyB May 20 '13 at 21:08

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