Take the 2-minute tour ×
English Language & Usage Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

According to Oxford Dictionaries Online,

finite ... 2 Grammar (of a verb form) having a specific tense, number, and person.

non-finite ... Grammar (of a verb form) not limited by tense, person, or number.

Modal verbs (can, may, should etc) are always followed by bare infinitives. For example:

We could practice our dialogue.

Here, practice is a bare infinitive and is a non-finite verb and can, by its own nature, does not express tense, person or number.

Does that imply that in sentences like the one above, where a bare infinitive follows a modal verb, neither is a finite verb? If so, am I correct in understanding that we can have grammatically legitimate clauses and sentences even without a finite verb?

share|improve this question
    
I just realized that the original question is paraphrasing Oxford Dictionaries Online, not quoting it. As written, it sounds like a definitive passage from a style guide, but the actual entries merely describe some distinguishing traits of finite and non-finite verbs without explaining actual usage. –  Bradd Szonye May 21 '13 at 22:30
    
Perhaps Oxford Dictionaries Online is not the best possible source for grammar information? How about a grammar book? Or is that too radical? –  John Lawler May 24 '13 at 21:19
    
@JohnLawler. My grammar books don't address the point in question. Besides, I quoted Oxford to make the definition of 'finite' authentic. I did not realize that some linguists might want to disagree with Oxford. –  Elzee May 25 '13 at 9:13
1  
Linguists are the ones who write the dictionaries. –  John Lawler May 25 '13 at 15:33
    
@JohnLawler. Thanks for that information. I thought they were called 'lexicographers'. It seems as though I've been misled by articles like this. –  Elzee May 26 '13 at 11:25
show 3 more comments

3 Answers 3

I think you are misunderstanding the meaning of finite. Finite is not a category of verb but a category of verb forms and uses.

Finite forms are those which must take either past or non-past tense (must is anomalous in having the same form for both tenses) and may change to agree with the person and number of their subjects. Non-finite forms, infinitives and participles, do not change with tense of the utterance or person or number of the subject.

In your example, the modal verb could is finite: it is the "past" form of the verb can. (It may not express past tense, but that is another matter.) As you say, it doesn't take a particular inflection which expresses person and number; but no English verb has a complete repertory of such inflections. You will find a little more information at this question.

In fact, the full modals can, may, must, shall, will differ from other verbs in being defective: they have only finite forms, no infinitive or participles.

Every complete clause has exactly one finite verb; if there are more verbs strung together, then the first is finite and the rest are non-finite. Consequently, if there is a full modal verb it must be the first in the string.


Except in cases where two or more finite verbs are conjoined: I can and will do it. But these cases really express two or more clauses.

share|improve this answer
1  
Must has no past tense. Instead we write had to. Still, good answer: +1. –  Bradd Szonye May 16 '13 at 10:32
1  
@BraddSzonye Must has no distinct past form; but the only form it does have may be deployed in either a past or a non-past sense. Granted, use in a past sense is declining; but that is true of all the modals. –  StoneyB May 16 '13 at 10:42
1  
@BraddSzonye And it's arguable that in sentences like "Well, if we must we must; but I don't think we will", the first must is a "past" form in a present irrealis sense! –  StoneyB May 16 '13 at 10:59
1  
It's simpler to say that the modals have no tenses; after all, they don't inflect or agree, and there is no consistent difference between the official "present" and "past" forms. I'd say that modals are neither finite verbs nor non-finite verbs, but rather auxiliary verbs, and defective ones at that. –  John Lawler May 21 '13 at 21:23
2  
@JohnLawler Seems to me the full modals have as much "tense" as lexicals; just the "non-past" form has a wider range of applications. But I'd be happier ascribing tense to clauses anyway. –  StoneyB May 21 '13 at 22:02
show 11 more comments

The definitions in Oxford Dictionaries Online describe some common traits of finite and non-finite verbs in English, but they overlook the key differences that you'd use to analyze an actual sentence. Wikipedia offers a more thorough explanation:

A finite verb is a form of a verb that has a subject (expressed or implied) and can function as the root of an independent clause.... In many languages, finite verbs are the locus of grammatical information of gender, person, number, tense, aspect, mood, and/or voice. Finite verbs are distinguished from non-finite verbs, such as infinitives, participles, etc., which generally mark these grammatical categories to a lesser degree or not at all....

English is one of the many languages that only inflects finite verbs. However, inflection is not a defining trait, because some verb classes lack inflection for other reasons. The preterite-present verbs are one such class that inflects only for tense.

That class includes the English modal verbs, which have two relevant properties:

  • They do not inflect, except insofar as some of them come in present–past (present–preterite) pairs. They do not add the ending -(e)s in the third-person singular....
  • They are defective: they are not used as infinitives or participles..., nor as imperatives, nor ... as subjunctives.

Thus:

  • Some modals do inflect for tense.
  • Those that don't inflect do so for linguistic reasons, not grammatical reasons.
  • Modal verbs are only used as finite verbs, as the root of the sentence.

Therefore, in the sentence “We could practice our dialogue,” could is a finite verb, functioning as the root of the sentence, that modifies the non-finite verb practice.

share|improve this answer
add comment

I might go to the movies.

"Go" in this sentence is a bare infinitive and does not inflect i.e. I might went to the movies. Hence, go is non-finite.

However, "might" doesn't show tense, number, or person. It just indicates the person's degree of certainity about the future. How can it be classed as finite?

share|improve this answer
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.