Take the 2-minute tour ×
English Language & Usage Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

What is the right word to the gap (21)? (had/have)

That is about 400 years earlier than when the Inca Indians were thought to (21) __ discovered the silver in the ground.

I think it's had as the tense before is past simple, but the official solution is have Which one is the right anwser?

share|improve this question

closed as general reference by tchrist, MετάEd, Kristina Lopez, Mitch, Bill Franke May 9 '13 at 1:14

This question is too basic; it can be definitively and permanently answered by a single link to a standard internet reference source designed specifically to find that type of information.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

2 Answers 2

To have. One should definitely use the infinitive. "He seemed to walk straight", "she was told to listen carefully".

share|improve this answer
    
Thanks for posting an answer. Please support it with references (such as a link to a reputable source). Also check spelling. Thanks. –  MετάEd May 8 '13 at 15:38

Have is right. After to you cannot have a past tense word - here 'had'. To +verb is infinitive . All infinitives will have 'to' and the base verb. (which is always present tense. it is also called as root verb.

share|improve this answer

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.