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Just curious to know whether people having a lisp (speech defect) write in the same way as they pronounce the word. For example they pronounce s as /θ/ and z as /θ/. So, do they write 's' as 'th' like with the word thick written as sick?

Another example as Spanish is spoken with a lisp, like pez is pronounced /peθ/. Is writing the same?

I hope this question doesn't hurt any emotions, but I'm doing a research, so need an answer for it.

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The fact that the commonest Spanish pronunciation of S is not the same as the English S does not mean 'Spanish is spoken with a lisp', any more than it means 'Americans can't pronounce S properly'. –  TimLymington Apr 25 '13 at 11:00
    
Possible candidate for ELL? –  Matt Apr 25 '13 at 11:55
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Why on earth would a lisper spell words featuring an "s" differently? Who would even think that? Most times, lispers are not aware of their lisp. If they were, they would not lisp. They can be trained to be aware of their pronunciation and work on the "correct", non-lisp pronunciation. If they are not aware that they are lisping, why would anyone think that they would "thpell wordth the thame way that they are thpeaking?" –  teylyn Apr 25 '13 at 12:12
    
Many words are pronounced differently - but spelt the same - in the US & UK. Also some words are spelt differently in the two countries - but pronounced the same. This demonstrates that there is little connection between spelling and pronunciation. –  TrevorD May 28 '13 at 11:09
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1 Answer

No, they don't. Spelling is not entirely related to pronunication.

Just as people without a lisp have to work out the difference between bough, cough, dough and tough, people with a lisp know that the word they pronounce as lithp isn't spelled that way.

However: you are looking at this the wrong way.

A person with a lisp says that word [cruel irony!] /lɪθp/ but what they are actually saying is lisp. The fact that that sounds different to how others pronounce it doesn't change the way it's spelled. One might just as well ask about a word pronounced /treɪt̬ə/ but spelled traitor not trader.

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Of course, some authors might attempt to convey a lisped utterance in a way the reader might readily grasp. –  Edwin Ashworth Apr 25 '13 at 11:01
    
True. Oi moight attampt to wroite in a Sarssex arcsunt. –  Andrew Leach Apr 25 '13 at 11:04
    
Rather like one of the most famous of all literary figures, who for a time had such a bad cold that his speeches at a banquet were limited to "Thag you very buch." –  Edwin Ashworth Apr 25 '13 at 11:39
    
One minor correction. Spelling is not regularly related to pronunciation at all in Modern English. English spelling is Middle English spelling; that's why we can read Chaucer, with a little help, but if we heard it, we'd never understand what they were saying, because the sounds changed but the spelling didn't. –  John Lawler Apr 25 '13 at 15:52
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