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Can I use gerunds with the word "concede" without using preposition "to" as in the sentence below?

He concedes killing his wife.

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Where did the idea that to is used with gerunds come from? To is used with infinitives, not gerunds. –  John Lawler Mar 28 '13 at 20:10
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John, surely you are right, but I often see to-gerund constructs. –  user19148 Mar 28 '13 at 20:21
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One admits to a crime, but one concedes an argument to an opponent. One might concede that one killed one's wife. –  StoneyB Mar 28 '13 at 20:22
    
@Carlo_R. Examples? Those are just prepositional uses anyway, like from walking to running in five easy steps. –  tchrist Mar 28 '13 at 20:38
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There are lots of constructions with gerund phrases (i.e, reduced gerund clauses) as objects of a preposition. Usually the preposition is governed by the preceding verb, like He admitted to/She looked into/They argued over robbing the bank. But it doesn't have anything to do with the gerund. –  John Lawler Mar 28 '13 at 21:12

1 Answer 1

up vote -1 down vote accepted

Actually, it appears that no one says any of those, perhaps because concede does not work that way:

conceded graph

On the other hand, if you swap admits in for concedes, now you get a more interesting picture:

admits graph

And here is the past-tense version of the same:

admitted

I find especially curious that this only started getting said come the 20th century. That part I don’t know what to make of.

In any event, it appears that admitting doing anything is fairly new to the English language, and following that admit with a to before an -ing form is a very recent phenomenon indeed.

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so it means no? –  pihu Mar 29 '13 at 14:06
    
@user41412 Right: it shows that people neither “concede doing things” nor “concede to doing” things. You want to use admit there instead. –  tchrist Mar 29 '13 at 14:11

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