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“I warned you,” was his friend’s answer; “I said—be on your guard when you go near her. Besides, you might have waited till to-morrow, and had me with you: it was mere folly to attempt the interview to-night, and alone.” (Jane Eyre)

Are there ‘might have’ omitted before ‘had’? If yes, which is grammatical omitting all the two auxiliary verbs (might, have) or just the modal verb ‘might’?

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Ellie Kesselman, Mari-Lou A, Chenmunka, Edwin Ashworth, ScotM Jun 29 '15 at 0:09

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up vote 2 down vote accepted

No. "Might have" has NOT been elided there.

The sentence as written is saying "waited and (definitely) had me with you." This use of "might have" has the meaning of "it would have been better if you had." It is not a simple conditional tense. And the "had" thereafter stands on its own; it is not intended as a conditional, either.

Try reading it this way: "It would have been better if you had waited until I was there with you."

Or: "You might have (it would have been good if you had) waited till to-morrow, and had (at which time you would have had) me with you."

Or: "You should have waited until tomorrow when I could be there with you."

I hope these variations help you see the accurate sense of the sentence.

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