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Following is an excerpt from Michelle Dean's post in The Newyorker (my emphasis):

“One of the reasons Hank and I have always resisted being on television is that we don’t really want nerdfighters to be a mainstream cultural phenomenon,” Green wrote me. “I worry that mainstream cultural phenomena need, like, Message Singularity and A Brand and an Institutional Voice and stuff. That kind of thing does not interest us at all. We just want to make cool stuff with people we like.

Has the writer omitted to when she writes Green wrote me?

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1. Yes, the writer has omitted to in that clause. 2. Such omissions are commonplace. 3. The elision of normally expected words that can be supplied by context is called ellipsis. –  Robusto Mar 14 '13 at 10:05
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Check out the examples under Def. #2 in this dictionary – particularly the one about poor Simon! Because write can mean write (a letter) to, the to isn't always needed. –  J.R. Mar 14 '13 at 10:32
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This is not ellipsis. "Green wrote me" is perfectly acceptable English. "Green spoke me" is not. This is because the verb "write" is doubly transitive (and so can have both an indirect object and a direct object), while "speak" is not. –  Peter Shor Mar 14 '13 at 14:03
    
Related (though seen from the other side): english.stackexchange.com/q/39765/8019 –  TimLymington Mar 24 '13 at 19:11
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1 Answer

From the ODO's entry for write:

chiefly North American write and send a letter to:
Mother wrote me and told me about poor Simon’s death

As the definition notes, such usage is peculiar to the American audience of The New Yorker. It's perfectly fine in AmE, but will probably raise an eyebrow if used elsewhere.

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