Take the 2-minute tour ×
English Language & Usage Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Consider the following 2 questions:

  1. Do you eat rice for breakfast in the morning?
  2. Do you have rice for breakfast in the morning?

My questions are:

Are both questions acceptable? If they are, are there any difference in meaning?

share|improve this question
add comment

2 Answers

up vote 3 down vote accepted

They can both mean the same thing, but it all depends on context.

Both sentences can mean:

Is rice one of foods you typically eat during your morning breakfast?

However, Question #2 could mean something different. Let's say I was staying at your house overnight, and I was on a special diet that required me to have rice in the morning for breakfast. I might ask you:

Do you have rice for breakfast in the morning?

which, in that context, could be paraphrased as:

Is there any rice in your pantry, so that we can cook it for breakfast in the morning?

Because the word have has more than one meaning (only one of which is synonymous with eat), the second question can mean different things in different contexts.

share|improve this answer
    
Thanks for your detailed answer and insight. –  Stanley Mar 12 '13 at 9:28
add comment

Both are acceptable as we all know that breakfast is when you eat, and that rice is a food, so there's very little difference in meaning.

share|improve this answer
    
Thanks for your answer ... –  Stanley Mar 6 '13 at 10:09
    
+1 for Both are acceptable; -1 for there's very little difference in meaning. –  Kris Mar 6 '13 at 11:04
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.