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Which is correct?

  1. There is no means to listen what he is saying.
  2. There are no means to listen what he is saying.
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A better construction might be "...no means of listening to..." – Jimi Oke Jan 27 '11 at 22:29
also: by all means – asymmetric Jan 27 '11 at 23:30

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up vote 3 down vote

According to Oxford Dictionaries it can be "treated as singular or plural".

Personally, I find the plural form more natural in your example. Also note that you need another "to": There are no means to listen to what he is saying.

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