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Which is correct?

  1. There is no means to listen what he is saying.
  2. There are no means to listen what he is saying.
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2  
A better construction might be "...no means of listening to..." – Jimi Oke Jan 27 '11 at 22:29
    
also: by all means – asymmetric Jan 27 '11 at 23:30

According to Oxford Dictionaries it can be "treated as singular or plural".

Personally, I find the plural form more natural in your example. Also note that you need another "to": There are no means to listen to what he is saying.

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and what about a different meaning and context "One thing is a purpose and the other thing is a means to achieve that purpose"? Can I use only singular, or only plural (".. the other thing are means to achieve..."), or both? – Tomas Jan 6 '14 at 22:47
    
@user1951, Is "mean" an acceptable singular for "means"? – Pacerier Sep 19 '15 at 9:21
    
@Pacerier No - see plurale tantum and the definition of means. – Lawrence May 21 at 14:44

Means has two meaning:it use as a singular I.e cars is a means of transportation, then the last one is used as a plural when you talked on wealth I.e His means are flenty that is means he has many ways of getting money.

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2  
Welcome to English Language and Usage. Can you please fix some typos and try to include some references in your answer such as a dictionary link? You mean "plenty", not "flenty", right? – Rathony May 21 at 13:56

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